RFast
05-23-2006, 08:51 AM
We have very slow runner who twice has been put out at second base after line drives to the outfield that were not caught. By my reading of Rules 10.06(c) and 10.05(d), I believe the batter should be credited with a hit, not a fielder's choice. Is that correct?
pizzacutter
05-23-2006, 09:12 AM
Score it a fielder's choice. Sadly, the batter is screwed out of a hit through no fault of his own. The sabermetric to correct for this is surely on its way! ;)
digglahhh
05-23-2006, 09:13 AM
No, you are incorrect.
10.06(c) states clearly that you can't award a batter a hit in the situation you desribe. I presume you take issue the rule book's specific use of "infielder," which I agree is curious. But the situation is the key, not the fielder. The runner was forced out.
In order for a batter to be credited with a hit all forced runners must advance at least one base safely.
The play you described is a force out and all scoring rules for force outs apply. For example, if the preceding runner had reached on an error and then is forced out, say 7-4, the batter who reaches first is not only not credited with a hit, but he also inherits the forced runner's status as "unearned" if the batter eventually scores. You can't recreate what did not happen. So if a runner is out on a force, you have to assume that if there was no runner the batter would have been out at first, in this case 7-3, even though it would seem to be unlikely.
If you are asking the simpler question, that you could be by the wording of the question, of whether a batter who is thrown out trying to "stretch" a single into a double should be awarded a single, the answer is, yes.