Ask The Umpire

[GiambiJuice]

It would still be a perfect game.

Yes. I believe that a perfect game by definition is one in which no batter from the opposing team reaches base. So in this situation, it would still qualify.

[chicagowhitesox1173]

I would think it would still be a perfect game too but wouldn't the box score show an error. The line would be 0-0-1?

[ipitch]

I would think it would still be a perfect game too but wouldn't the box score show an error. The line would be 0-0-1?

You're confusing the two teams. Any error made by the team that threw the perfect game would be in their line.
So, if there were no other errors in the game, then it would look like this:
4-7-1
0-0-0

[chicagowhitesox1173]

You're confusing the two teams. Any error made by the team that threw the perfect game would be in their line.
So, if there were no other errors in the game, then it would look like this:
4-7-1
0-0-0

So say if Pete Rose didn't catch that foul ball that Bob Boone dropped in the 1980 WS, Boone wouldn't get an error if they retired the batter on the next pitch?

[jnakamura]

So say if Pete Rose didn't catch that foul ball that Bob Boone dropped in the 1980 WS, Boone wouldn't get an error if they retired the batter on the next pitch?

Boone would get the error, but you're crediting the error to the wrong team.

Anyway, as already stated, errors do not necessarily affect the perfect game's status. The PG pitcher's team can have 10 errors, as long as none of those ten allow a man to reach base.

A perfect game is defined by Major League Baseball as a game in which a pitcher (or combination of pitchers) pitches a victory that lasts a minimum of nine innings and in which no opposing player reaches base. Thus, the pitcher (or pitchers) cannot allow any hits, walks, hit batsmen, or any opposing player to reach base safely for any other reason: in short, "27 up, 27 down". An error that does not allow a batter to get on base, such as a misplayed foul ball, does not spoil a perfect game.

[rodk]

How does the 45 foot lane to first really work?

I saw a discussion of rule 6.05 at http://www.qcbaseball.com/baseball_r...nninglane.aspx that said that if a runner is outside of the lane and is deemed to have interfered with a throw, he is out. Does that mean the rule is an exception to the usual rule for the other bases that holds that a runner is only out after an intentional interference with a throw? Should my pitcher, if he's fielding a bunt and sees the runner outside the lane, throw at him to draw an interference call and get a dead ball that stops advances to boot?

Do players on diamonds of <90 feet also have this rule in their game? I've never seen the lines for it on a small field.

Thanks

[jbooth]

How does the 45 foot lane to first really work?

I saw a discussion of rule 6.05 at http://www.qcbaseball.com/baseball_r...nninglane.aspx that said that if a runner is outside of the lane and is deemed to have interfered with a throw, he is out. Does that mean the rule is an exception to the usual rule for the other bases that holds that a runner is only out after an intentional interference with a throw? Should my pitcher, if he's fielding a bunt and sees the runner outside the lane, throw at him to draw an interference call and get a dead ball that stops advances to boot?

Do players on diamonds of <90 feet also have this rule in their game? I've never seen the lines for it on a small field.

Thanks

The running lane is really just a guide to help the ump decide whether to call interference or not.

The primary thing that the ump looks for is; whether or not the runner intentionally interfered with the fielder AT THE BASE, who is TAKING THE THROW.

The runner is not automatically out just because he is out of the lane, he must be out of the lane AND interfere with the fielder who is TAKING THE THROW.

He could even be out while IN the running lane, it isn't a safety zone. He is not allowed to interfere with the fielder taking the throw.

Interference with throws must be intentional. If the batter-runner runs out of the lane, the entire distance to first, then the ump judges that he is intentionally trying to interfere, because he should know that he is supposed to run in the lane. But, unless he actually does interfere with the fielder TAKING THE THROW, then he isn't out.

If he runs within the lane, but then swats at the fielder, or does something intentional to interfere, he would still be out.

He is allowed to come out of the lane during the last step or two, because the base is outside the lane, but he cannot intentionally interfere.

If he is out of the lane the entire distance to first, and gets hit by the throw, it is generally accepted that that is intentional interference.

[Macker]

Should my pitcher, if he's fielding a bunt and sees the runner outside the lane, throw at him to draw an interference call and get a dead ball that stops advances to boot?

I would not recommend this. As many times as I've seen plays in which I believed the batter-runner to have interfered, the umpire called interference only about half the time. Better to just play it and get an out rather than intentionally hit a runner. You never know where the ball is going to end up and whether your fielders can recover it to prevent additional advance if you don't get the interference call.

[jbooth]

I would not recommend this. As many times as I've seen plays in which I believed the batter-runner to have interfered, the umpire called interference only about half the time. Better to just play it and get an out rather than intentionally hit a runner. You never know where the ball is going to end up and whether your fielders can recover it to prevent additional advance if you don't get the interference call.

You are correct, and I should have noted in my other response, that the throw must be a quality throw. If the runner is outside the lane and the fielder throws at the runner instead of toward the base, and that throw direction is not in a reasonable direction toward the base, the ump may judge that the interference is not intentional.

I should have been more clear. If the runner is outside the lane and gets hit with a throw where the path of the ball is going directly toward the base, he will most likely be called out. If he gets hit by a ball that is not heading anywhere near the base, then he shouldn't be called out.

[janduscframe]

I assume many of you saw that hit by Dozier where the foul ball spun back into play. What if he had hit one off the end of the bat and clanked it off the front of the dugout and it came back in the air into play before passing first. Would that have been fair? or would the ball be dead as soon as it hit something in foul territory?

[dgarza]

Def. of Terms

A FOUL BALL is a batted ball that settles on foul territory between home and first base, or between home and third base, or that bounds past first or third base on or over foul territory, or that first falls on foul territory beyond first or third base, or that, while on or over foul territory, touches the person of an umpire or player, or any object foreign to the natural ground.

[ipitch]

It would be a foul ball.

[janduscframe]

Thanks. I kind of thought that might be it... did you guys sit that crazy thing Dozier hit? It's on the web...

[ipitch]

Thanks. I kind of thought that might be it... did you guys sit that crazy thing Dozier hit? It's on the web...

Yes, that ball came back after being foul by a good 5 feet. Dozier was heads-up to start running almost immediately.
http://mlb.mlb.com/video/play.jsp?content_id=22734353

[Rich the Giants fan]

Brain fart by the pitcher not to cover home.

[dgarza]

Dozier was heads-up to start running almost immediately.

Also heads-up not to touch the ball while he was running.

[BBUmpFan]

You are correct, and I should have noted in my other response, that the throw must be a quality throw. If the runner is outside the lane and the fielder throws at the runner instead of toward the base, and that throw direction is not in a reasonable direction toward the base, the ump may judge that the interference is not intentional.

I should have been more clear. If the runner is outside the lane and gets hit with a throw where the path of the ball is going directly toward the base, he will most likely be called out. If he gets hit by a ball that is not heading anywhere near the base, then he shouldn't be called out.

This is true of just about every rule set. From what I have heard, FED is different. They don't care about the quality of the throw and they don't care if it interferes with the one receiving the ball. All FED is concerned with is if the BR is outside the running lane and if he somehow interfered with the throw, ie. the throw hit him in his ankle or it caused the fielder throwing the ball to throw it into RF.

That is my understanding of what I have seen discussed earlier this year on another forum. I don't do FED games usually and thought I would bring it up for clarification to make sure I understood it correctly.

[SavoyBG]

Bases loaded, one out, infield in. Popup behind first base. Umpire calls infield fly, if fair. The runner at 1B coming back to the base collides with the 1Bman. Interference is called on the runner. The ball is dead immediately. The runner on 1B is out.

How do you judge whether or not the batter is also out on the "infield fly if fair?"

I don't think it matters because the ball was dead already, but the ball landed a few inches foul.

Either it's a double play, or the runner on 1B is out and the batter is still batting after the foul ball.

[SavoyBG]

I found this in my Jaksa and Roder "The Rules Of Professional Baseball."

They describe the same play except that the ball is hit on the 3B line and the runner from 3B interferes with the 3Bman. Here's what it says:

The plate umpires signals "infield fly, if fair." R3 then interferes with the 3Bman as he returns to 3B. The ball is dead when the inerference occurs and the runner is out. However, even though the ball is dead, the batter's status is determined by whether the ball would have been fair or foul.

If the ball is caught over foul territory, or is uncaught and becomes foul, the batter is still at bat with a strike added for the foul ball (if there are less than 2 strikes at the time of the pitch).

If the ball is caught over fair territory, or is uncaught and becomes fair, the batter is also out on the infield fly. The other two runners cannot advance or be put out, They return to their bases occupied at the time of the pitch (if there is not yet three outs).

[The Flush]

Our local 10U rec league hosted an all-star tournament. The backstop on one of the diamonds has been hit by a mower and now there is a small gap at the bottom of one section of fencing. Our team was at bat with the bases loaded when the opponents threw a wild pitch/passed ball that went under the fence or at least got stuck under it. Does this count as a ball thrown out of play? If it does, how would you award bases?

Ultimately the coaches and umpires agreed to only allow one base.

[jbooth]

Our local 10U rec league hosted an all-star tournament. The backstop on one of the diamonds has been hit by a mower and now there is a small gap at the bottom of one section of fencing. Our team was at bat with the bases loaded when the opponents threw a wild pitch/passed ball that went under the fence or at least got stuck under it. Does this count as a ball thrown out of play? If it does, how would you award bases?

Ultimately the coaches and umpires agreed to only allow one base.

A league is hosting a tournament, and they don't have a rule book on hand?

7.05 Each runner including the batter-runner may, without liability to be put out,
advance—
(h) One base, if a ball, pitched to the batter, or thrown by the pitcher from his position
on the pitcher’s plate to a base to catch a runner, goes into a stand or a bench, or
over or through a field fence or backstop. The ball is dead;
APPROVED RULING: When a wild pitch or passed ball goes through or by the
catcher, or deflects off the catcher, and goes directly into the dugout, stands, above
the break, or any area where the ball is dead, the awarding of bases shall be one
base. One base shall also be awarded if the pitcher while in contact with the rubber,
throws to a base, and the throw goes directly into the stands or into any area where
the ball is dead.
If, however, the pitched or thrown ball goes through or by the catcher or
through the fielder, and remains on the playing field, and is subsequently kicked or
deflected into the dugout, stands or other area where the ball is dead, the awarding
of bases shall be two bases from position of runners at the time of the pitch or throw.

[scorekeeper]

Great start to the Twins/Tribe game 2day. 1st batter of the game has a 2-2 count. The next pitch is coming low and in, and the batter swings before the pitch get to the plate. The ball goes down, bounces and hits the batter, then bounds into the stands. The announcers say he struck out and reached 1st on a WP, but the umpires confer and say he’s out because as soon as the ball hits him, it becomes dead.
Never seen that one before.

[ipitch]

Great start to the Twins/Tribe game 2day. 1st batter of the game has a 2-2 count. The next pitch is coming low and in, and the batter swings before the pitch get to the plate. The ball goes down, bounces and hits the batter, then bounds into the stands. The announcers say he struck out and reached 1st on a WP, but the umpires confer and say he’s out because as soon as the ball hits him, it becomes dead.
Never seen that one before.

Yep, that's a rare one.
6.05 A batter is out when-
(f) He attempts to hit a third strike and the ball touches him

[Swing Coach]

Firsst and third, pitcher fakes to third then wheels and throws to first. Does the pitcher's foot have to touch the ground toward third or can he just fake a step to third, keep it in the air, then wheel to first.

SC

[raptor]

Runner on first...takes off on first move...can a lefty (or righty) execute an inside move and throw to 2nd..or is that a balk due to throwing to an occupied base?