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Scoring batted ball hitting runner for third out

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  • Scoring batted ball hitting runner for third out

    Today, A Brewer hit a grounder that struck baserunner Ryan Braun for out number 3. It was scored as a single. In that particular case, I don't think that the batter ever touched first base. Had it not been the third out he obviously would have and I wondered it he technically is supposed to touch first to receive credit for a hit. Otherwise, anyway, he would get credit for his on-base percentage even though he never actually reached base. If a runner had scored from third before the batter was struck, would the run count even if the runner was hit before the batter reached first base? In theory, the baserunner could prevent the force out at first negating a run. For example, with a runner on first, you could put on a squeeze bunt and have a runner on first run into the ball to negate the force at first but I assume that would be a different form of interference. Anyway, for the RBI to score, does the batter NEED to touch first regardless of whether it was before or after the ball hit the runner?

  • #2
    That is some squeeze bunt that hits a runner on first. If a batter can place the ball that well, he doesn't need to sacrifice.

    The ball is dead when it hits the baserunner, so the batter should not have to touch first. If a runner scores before the baserunner is hit (unlikely), the run should count, I think.

    I thought of Reggie Jackson's sacrifice thigh in the 1978 WS, but that was a thrown ball.

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    • #3
      Originally posted by Stolensingle View Post
      That is some squeeze bunt that hits a runner on first. If a batter can place the ball that well, he doesn't need to sacrifice.

      The ball is dead when it hits the baserunner, so the batter should not have to touch first. If a runner scores before the baserunner is hit (unlikely), the run should count, I think.
      No, no runners can advance on a batted ball that hits a runner for an out. The runner is out, the other runners go back, and the batter is now at first.
      .


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      • #4
        By the way, giving a batter a hit on a ball that hits a runner for an out is insane. It's the worst scoring rule in baseball and it should be changed.
        .


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        • #5
          Originally posted by SavoyBG View Post

          No, no runners can advance on a batted ball that hits a runner for an out. The runner is out, the other runners go back, and the batter is now at first.
          They said that if the runner from third had scored before the ball had struck the other runner, the run would have counted. Is that true? Anyway, regarding scoring, the play is most similar to a FC. I think if I had written the rules, I would give the defensive team the option of removing the struck runner or the batter, and sending the stuck runner back to first, and score it as a FC.

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          • #6
            Originally posted by Stolensingle View Post
            That is some squeeze bunt that hits a runner on first. If a batter can place the ball that well, he doesn't need to sacrifice.
            I was thinking if the batter just bunted to the first base side and the runner on first literally ran up out of the baseline and flopped on it. Maybe that is an additional interference, but not sure how it would be ruled. The only way it could work is if you send the runner from third like a steal of home with two outs and the run stands because it was not a force at first play.

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            • #7
              Originally posted by brett View Post

              They said that if the runner from third had scored before the ball had struck the other runner, the run would have counted. Is that true?
              No.

              No runners can advance on an interference that occurs before the batter reaches first base.

              Who is they?


              Last edited by SavoyBG; 10-08-2018, 09:17 AM.
              .


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              • #8
                Originally posted by SavoyBG View Post

                No.

                No runners can advance on an interference that occurs before the batter reaches first base.

                Who is they?

                Bob Costas LOL

                What if the runner had gotten to first base before the runner was struck by the ball? I know the physics make that unlikely.

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                • #9
                  Originally posted by brett View Post

                  Bob Costas LOL

                  What if the runner had gotten to first base before the runner was struck by the ball? I know the physics make that unlikely.
                  Wouldn't matter in this case. When a runner is hit by a batted ball and is called out the runners have to return to where they were at the time of the pitch.

                  You could have a runner hit by a batted ball and not be out. There would have to be no fielder in the area when the runner was hit. In that case the ball would just be in play, like when a runner is hit by a thrown ball.

                  Announcers don't know the rules, even the ones who were players.

                  .


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                  • #10
                    Originally posted by brett View Post

                    I was thinking if the batter just bunted to the first base side and the runner on first literally ran up out of the baseline and flopped on it.
                    LOL.

                    But remember Game 5 of Cubs-Nats LDS last year? There was both batter interference and catcher interference in the same inning. The umps blew the batter interference call. It should have been a dead ball when Baez's bat hit the catcher, but the ump ruled that because the ball was already beyond Wieters at that point, it was a passed ball. This is kind of like ruling that if a run scores before a batted ball hits a basreunner, the run counts. And i guess Savoy is right. It doesn't count, just as Wieters should not have been charged with a PB. The interference takes precedence, is even ruled retroactively. That was a key paly that might have cost the Nats that series.

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